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Mock Test Series for IAS – 2017: Polity-1

Q.1. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution makes a Governor of State sub-ordinate to the President of India?

  1. Article 154
  2. Article 155
  3. Article 156
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. 2 & 3
  4. 1 & 2

Q.2. Who alone can initiate the process of dismissing a government in case of breakdown of constitutional machinery?

  1. President
  2. Governor
  3. Both a & b
  4. None of the above

Q.3. Which of the following Commissions suggested that the phrase “during the pleasure of the President” should be deleted from the Constitution, because a Governor should not be removed at the will of the central government?

  1. Sarkaria Commission
  2. Venkatachalliah Commission
  3. Punchhi Commission
  1. All
  2. 1 & 2
  3. Only 2
  4. Only 3

Q.4. In Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachilhu and others case, Five Judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court in 1992 declared that Anti-Defection law

  1. Does not violate any rights or freedom of speech
  2. Does not violate the basic structure of parliamentary democracy
  3. Both a & b were their observation
  4. None of the above is correct observations of that bench.

Q.5. Consider the following facts about the vacancy in President’s office:

  1. Vacancy by expiration must be completed

before the expiration of the term.

  1. In case of his resignation, outgoing President continues to hold office until his successor is elected.
  2. In case of vacancy by impeachment, election is to be held within 6 months from the date of such vacancy.

Correct statements with regard to the vacancy in President’s office are/ are:

  1. All
  2. 1 & 2 only
  3. 2 & 3
  4. 1 & 3 only

Q.6. Ordinance can be promulgated by the Union on matters mentioned in

  1. Union List
  2. State List if particular State is under President’s Rule
  3. Concurrent List
  4. Residuary power

Now, select the correct choices:

  1. All
  2. 1, 2 & 3
  3. 1, 3 & 4
  4. 1 & 3 only

Q.7. Consider the following facts about a Minister:

  1. At the time of his appointment he may not be the member of any house.
  2. He can take part in the house; of which he is not the member.
  3. He can vote in the house; of which he is not the member.

Select the incorrect facts:

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 3
  3. 1 & 3
  4. None of the above

Q.8. CAG audits and reports on all expenditure

  1. From Consolidated Fund of India and of each state & UT having a Legislative Assembly.
  2. From the Contingency Funds & Public Accounts of the Union and States.
  3. On the receipts or expenditure of all bodies substantially financed from the Union or State revenues.

Correct duties of CAG include:

  1. All
  2. 1 & 2only
  3. 2 & 3 only
  4. 1 & 3 only

Q.9. Consider the following provisions with regard to the state’s representation in the Lok Sabha and select the one that is not correct:

  1. Ratio of no. of seats to no. of population is same for each state, with the exception of smaller state
  2. Each State is divided into territorial constituency in such a manner that the ratio between the populations of each constituency remains the same.
  3. Both a & b are correct.
  4. None of the above is correct.

Q.10. Consider the following conditions:

  1. A member voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the house.
  2. A member voluntarily acquired citizenship of other countries.
  3. An independently elected member joins any political party.

A member of parliament will be disqualified, under which of the above mentioned conditions?

  1. 1 & 2 only
  2. 1 & 3 only
  3. 2 & 3 only
  4. all

Q.11. Adjournment differs from Adjournment sine die in that

  1. Adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time while Adjournment sine die refers to termination of a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period.
  2. The power of adjournment lies with Presiding officer while the power of adjournment sine die lies with the President.

Select the correct differences:

  1. Both
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 2
  4. None of the above

Q.12. Members of Parliament enjoy freedom from being arrested during continuance of a meeting of the House. However this freedom does not extend to

  1. Arrest under preventive detention.
  2. Arrest in civil cases.
  3. Arrest in criminal cases

Select the correct ones:

  1. All
  2. 1 & 2 only
  3. 2 & 3 only
  4. 1 & 3 only

Q.13. Public Accounts Committee

  1. Is a Parliamentary Committee under the control of Parliament
  2. Its chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the members Lok Sabha
  3. Opposition member as its 1st Chairman was appointed on 26 Jan, 1950
  4. If a member after his election to the committee is appointed as minister, ceases to be its member

Now select the correct statements

  1. 1,2 & 4
  2. 2,3, & 4
  3. 2 & 3
  4. 2 & 4

Q.14.Article 341

  1. Empowers Parliament to include or exclude castes from the list of Scheduled Castes in the notification.
  2. Empowers the President to specify castes which will be deemed as Scheduled Castes through a notification
  3. Both a & b
  4. None of the above

Q.15. Article 163 stipulates that Governor can sometimes act at his discretion i.e. not necessarily on the advice of Council of Ministers. Consider the given powers of the Governor and select those that are considered his discretionary power:

  1. Selection of CM when no political party has a clear cut majority or does not have an acknowledged leader.
  2. All major appointments of the State are made by the Governor.
 
  1. Reservation of certain Bills for the consideration of the President.

 

  1. All
  2. 1 & 2 only
  3. 1 & 3 only
  4. 2 & 3 only

Q.16. In case of differences between the two Houses of State Legislature

  1. There is provision for joint sitting of the two houses.
  2. There is no provision for joint sitting of the two houses.
  3. No state has two houses.
  4. Governor refers such bill for President’s consideration.

Q.17. Legislative Council can be abolished or created

  1. By simple majority resolution to be passed in the Legislative Assembly of that state.
  2. By a majority resolution of not being less than 2/3 of the members actually present & voting in the Legislative Assembly of that state.
  3. By an Act of Parliament.

Select the correct ones:

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. 1 & 3 taken together.
  4. 2 & 3 taken together.

Q.18.Governor’s power to grant assents or with hold assent or to reserve a bill for President is dealt under the heading

  1. “Governor” in Chapter II of Part VI
  2. “Legislative Procedure” in Chapter III of Part VI
  3. Both are correct
  4. None of the above is correct

Q.19. Which of the following are NOT the powers of PM with regard to the Council of Ministers?

  1. He recommend persons who can be appointed as ministers by the President
  2. He can co-ordinate the activities of all minister
  3. He can bring about the collapse of council of ministers
  4. He can ask the President to dismiss a minister
  1. All
  2. 1, 2 & 3
  3. 1, 3 & 4
  4. None of the above

Q.20. Which of the following Articles of Indian constitution or sections of various Acts are related to the power of States to remit sentences?

  1. Article72
  2. Article161
  3. Section 432 (1) of CrPC
  4. Section 433-A of CrPC
  1. All
  2. 1, 3 & 4
  3. 2 & 4
  4. 2, 3 & 4

Q.21. Consider the following Constitutional provisions

  1. Governor of State can act at his/her discretion while President can’t.
  2. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act has made ministerial advice as binding on the President & the Governor.

Select the correct statement

  1. Both
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 2
  4. None of the above

Q.22. A registered political party is recognized as National party by Election Commission if

  1. The party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least 3 different states
  2. The party wins 6 % of votes in 4 states & wins 4 Lok Sabha seats
  3. The party gets recognized in 4 or more States as state party.

Now select the correct answers from the given choices

  1. Fulfillment of any one of the 3 criterion is required
  2. All the criterion should be fulfilled
  3. 1 & 2 criterion should be fulfilled
  4. None of the above is the prescribed criterion.

Q.23. Consider the following facts about Attorney General of India:

  1. He/ she can accept briefs against the Government
  2. He/ she cannot appear against the Government.
  3. He/ she can defend an accused in the criminal proceedings
  4. He/ she cannot accept the directorship of a company without the permission of the Government.

Choose the correct combination from the given code:

  1. 1, 2 & 3
  2. 1, 2 & 4
  3. 1, 2, 3 & 4
  4. 1, 3 & 4

Q.24. Which Article empowers Parliament to restrict Fundamental Right of members of Armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces & intelligence agencies?

  1. Article 33
  2. Article 34
  3. Article 35
  4. Article 35 A

Q.25. Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are correct?

  1. Residuary powers in normal conditions are kept under Concurrent list
  2. Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament
  3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is the Parliament
  4. The Government of India Act, 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of the Governor-General

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1, 2 & 3
  2. 2, 3 & 4
  3. 3 & 4
  4. 2 & 4

 

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