Mock Test for IAS Prelims-2017: Polity

Q.1. Disqualification on ground of defection does not apply in the case 

  1. Of merger provided not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party concerned have agreed to such merger.
  2. Some members do not accept the merger and opted to function as a separate group
  3. A person who has been elected to the office of the Speaker or the Deputy   Speaker of the House of the People and if he/ she give up the membership of such political party, or rejoin afterward.
  1. Only 1
  2. 1 & 3
  3. 1 & 2
  4. 1, 2 & 3

Q.2. One of the salient features of the Mental Health Care Bill is that it decriminalises the attempt to suicide. This repeal

  1. Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code which provided for a year-long imprisonment for a failed suicide bid.
  2. Section 309 (b) of the Indian Penal Code which provided for 5 years rigorous imprisonment for a failed suicide bid.
  3. Both a & b are correct
  4. None of the above is correct

Q.3. Section 17 of the Nuclear Liability Act provides for the recourse by the operator from suppliers where-

  1. Such right is expressly provided for in a contract in writing
  2. The nuclear incident has resulted as a consequence of an act of supplier or his employee
  3. The nuclear incident has resulted from the act of commission or omission of an individual done with the intent to cause nuclear damage.
  1. Only 1
  2. All
  3. 1 & 3
  4. 2 & 3

Q.4. According to Delhi High Court judgment, 2016 with regard Delhi

  1. National Capital Territory is still a UT under Article 239 A
  2. National Capital Territory has some special status under Article 239 AA.
  3. All the decisions taken by Delhi government without the approval of Lt. Governor was illegal
  1. All
  2. Only 2
  3. 2 & 3
  4. 1 & 2

Q.5. National Waterways Bill, 2015, identified over 100 waterways as national waterways under

  1. Under Entry 27 of the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
  2. Under Entry 24 of the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
  3. Under Entry 27 of the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
  4. Under Entry 24 of the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution,

Q.6. It is permissible for Parliament, by law, to provide for the adjudication of disputes relating to inter-State rivers or river-valleys under Article

  1. 249
  2. 260
  3. 261
  4. 262

Q.7. State can make special provisions, as against the Fundamental Rights provided under Article 15, for

  1. Women
  2. Children
  3. Retired armed force personnel
  4. Socially and educationally backward class
  5. Minorities
  1. All
  2. 1, 2 & 4
  3. 1 & 2
  4. 1, 2 4 & 5

Q.8. Rajasthan high court had declared Sallekhand as illegal on the ground that

  1. It is a form of suicide
  2. Art 21 does not guarantee Right to Death
  3. Both a & b
  4. None of the above

Q.9. Which of the following rights and privileges are available to the citizens of India but denied to aliens?

  1. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment
  2. Right to freedom of speech & expression
  3. Cultural &educational right
  4. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion
  1. All
  2. 1 & 3
  3. 1, 2 & 3
  4. 1, 3 & 4

Q.10. Article 21 A added by 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 declares that State shall provide free & compulsory education to

  1. All children
  2. All children between the age of 6 to 14 years
  3. All children between the age of 14 to 18 years
  4. All girl children between the age of 6 to 14 years

Q.11. Consider the following differences in the writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court & High Court:

  1. Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Right only while High Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Right as well as ordinary legal right.
  2. Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is narrower than that of High Court.
  3. Supreme Court can’t refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction while High Court can refuse to exercise its writ.

Correct differences are

  1. All
  2. 1 & 2
  3. 2 & 3
  4. Only 1

Q.12. Fundamental Right differs from Directive Principles of State Policy in all respect, except

  1. Fundamental Right has legal sanction while DPS has moral & political sanctions.
  2. Fundamental Rights do not require legislation for their implementation while DPS require legislation.
  3. Fundamental Right seeks to protect the individual from State encroachments while DPS aims to promote general welfare of society.
  1. All
  2. 1 & 2
  3. 2 & 3
  4. None of the above

Q.13.Right against exploitation under Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings. “Traffic in human being” does not include

  1. Selling & buying of men, women & children like goods.
  2. Slavery
  3. Immoral traffic in woman & children including prostitution.
  1.  All
  2. 1 & 2
  3. 1 & 3
  4. None of the above

Q.14. Consider the following provisions of our Constitution about the Minorities in India and select the correct ones:

  1. Religious Freedom guaranteed under Art.25 is absolute.
  2. According to Supreme Court, appointment of Archakas and Pujaris by State is an interference by govt. in the affairs of “religious denomination”
  3. Both a & b
  4. None of the above

Q.15. Indian Constitution generally provides for non-discrimination among its citizens. However, there are certain Articles that provide or permit discrimination. Such Articles include:

  1. Article 15
  2. Article 16
  3. Article 19
  1. 1, 2 & 3
  2. 1 & 2
  3. Only 2
  4. 1 & 3

Q.16. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution read together makes the Right to Food as a derived Fundamental Right?

  1. Art 20
  2. Art 21
  3. Art 39 (a)
  4. Art 47

 

  1. All
  2. 1,2and3
  3. 1 ,3 and4
  4. 2,3 and4

Q.17. The Supreme Court has increased the ambit of the right to Life (article 21) to include which of the following?

  1. Right to life includes the Right to live with dignity.
  2. Right to life includes the Right to livelihood
  3. Right to life includes the Right to receive minimum wages
  4. Right to life includes the Right to guaranteed employment for 100 days in a year

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. Only 4
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1,2 and 3
  4. 1,2,3 and 4

Q.18. Under the term ‘double Jeopardy’ implied in Article 20 of the Constitution of India, a person:

  1. Convicted by a court of law cannot be punished under departmental proceedings for the same offence.
  2. Punished departmentally cannot be prosecuted in a court of law for the same offence.
  3. Shall not be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
  4. Cannot be subjected to proceedings in civil courts for disobedience of an injunction along with criminal proceedings.

Q.19. According to SC’s recent rulings, Article 25 protects

  1. Religious faith only
  2. Religious practices only
  3. Both a & b
  4. Religious faith but not Religious practices

Q.20.Right to individual Religious freedom under Article 25 ensures

  1. Freedom of Conscience
  2. Right to profess religion
  3. Right to practice religion
  4. Right to propagate religion
  1. All
  2. 1,2 & 3
  3. 2 & 3
  4. 1 & 3

Q.21. The phrase “Novel Features” was used by Dr. Ambedkar for

  1. Preamble
  2. Fundamental Rights
  3. Directive Principle of State Policy
  4. Fundamental Duties

Q.22. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

  1. Primacy is given to all the directive principles contained in Part IV of the Constitution over Fundamental rights.
  2. Primacy is given to all the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14-32 of the Constitution over directive principles.
  3. Primacy is given to all the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the constitution over directive principles.
  4. Primacy is given only to directive principles in clauses (b) and (c) of Article 39 over fundamental rights conferred by Articles 14 and 19 of the constitution.

Q.23. In Champakam Dorairajan case, Supreme Court ruled that

  1. DPS was always subordinate to Fundamental Rights
  1. Fundamental Right was always subordinate to DPS
  1. DPS was subordinate to Fundamental Rights, unless Parliament enact some amendments
  1. Fundamental Rights was subordinate to DPS, unless Parliament enact some amendments

Q.24. When National anthem is played,

  1. All persons can take salute
  2. Persons in uniform can take salute.
  3. Principal Dignitary can take salute
  4. Those in civil dress stand in attention.

Correct statements are

  1. 1 & 2
  2. 1, 2 & 3
  3. 2, 3 & 4
  4. 2 & 3

Q.25. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution

  1. On the recommendation of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee.
  1. By 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
  1. Both a & b are correct
  1. None of the above is correct

Q.26. Verma Committee on fundamental duties has identified the existence of certain legal provisions for the implementation of fundamental Duties. Such identified legal provisions do not include:

  1. Prevention of Insult to the National Honour Act
  2. Indian Penal Code
  3. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
  4. Wildlife Protection Act
  5. Protection of Civil Rights Act

 

  1. All
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1,2,3 and 4
  4. None of the above

Q.27. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the Indian Constitution are correct?

  1. Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
  2. Fundamental duties have formed a part of the Indian Constitution since its adoption.
  3. Fundamental duties became a part of the constitution in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  4. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1,2 and 3
  2. 1,2 and 4
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 3 and 4

Q.28. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution makes a Governor of State sub-ordinate to the President of India?

  1. Article 154
  2. Article 155
  3. Article 156
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. 2 & 3
  4. 1 & 2

Q.29. Who alone can initiate the process of dismissing a government in case of breakdown of constitutional machinery?

  1. President
  2. Governor
  3. Both a & b
  4. None of the above

Q.30. Which of the following Commissions suggested that the phrase “during the pleasure of the President” should be deleted from the Constitution, because a Governor should not be removed at the will of the central government?

  1. Sarkaria Commission
  2. Venkatachalliah Commission
  3. Punchhi Commission
  1. All
  2. 1 & 2
  3. Only 2
  4. Only 3

Q.31. In Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachilhu and others case, Five Judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court in 1992 declared that Anti-Defection law

  1. Does not violate any rights or freedom of speech
  2. Does not violate the basic structure of parliamentary democracy
  3. Both a & b were their observation
  4. None of the above is correct observations of that bench.

Q.32. Consider the following facts about the vacancy in President’s office:

  1. Vacancy by expiration must be completed before the expiration of the term.
  1. In case of his resignation, outgoing President continues to hold office until his successor is elected.
  2. In case of vacancy by impeachment, election is to be held within 6 months from the date of such vacancy.

Correct statements with regard to the vacancy in President’s office are/ are:

  1. All
  2. 1 & 2 only
  3. 2 & 3
  4. 1 & 3 only

Q.33. Ordinance can be promulgated by the Union on matters mentioned in

  1. Union List
  2. State List if particular State is under President’s Rule
  3. Concurrent List
  4. Residuary power

Now, select the correct choices:

  1. All
  2. 1, 2 & 3
  3. 1, 3 & 4
  4. 1 & 3 only

Q.34. Consider the following facts about a Minister:

  1. At the time of his appointment he may not be the member of any house.
  2. He can take part in the house; of which he is not the member.
  3. He can vote in the house; of which he is not the member.

Select the incorrect facts:

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 3
  3. 1 & 3
  4. None of the above

Q.35. CAG audits and reports on all expenditure

  1. From Consolidated Fund of India and of each state & UT having a Legislative Assembly.
  2. From the Contingency Funds & Public Accounts of the Union and States.
  3. On the receipts or expenditure of all bodies substantially financed from the Union or State revenues.

Correct duties of CAG include:

  1. All
  2. 1 & 2only
  3. 2 & 3 only
  4. 1 & 3 only

Q.36. Consider the following provisions with regard to the state’s representation in the Lok Sabha and select the one that is not correct:

  1. Ratio of no. of seats to no. of population is same for each state, with the exception of smaller state
  2. Each State is divided into territorial constituency in such a manner that the ratio between the populations of each constituency remains the same.
  3. Both a & b are correct.
  4. None of the above is correct.

Q.37. Consider the following conditions:

  1. A member voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the house.
  2. A member voluntarily acquired citizenship of other countries.
  3. An independently elected member joins any political party.

A member of parliament will be disqualified, under which of the above mentioned conditions?

  1. 1 & 2 only
  2. 1 & 3 only
  3. 2 & 3 only
  4. All

Q.38. Adjournment differs from Adjournment sine die in that

  1. Adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time while Adjournment sine die refers to termination of a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period.
  2. The power of adjournment lies with Presiding officer while the power of adjournment sine die lies with the President.

Select the correct differences:

  1. Both
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 2
  4. None of the above

Q.39. Members of Parliament enjoy freedom from being arrested during continuance of a meeting of the House. However this freedom does not extend to

  1. Arrest under preventive detention.
  2. Arrest in civil cases.
  3. Arrest in criminal cases

Select the correct ones:

  1. All
  2. 1 & 2 only
  3. 2 & 3 only
  4. 1 & 3 only

Q.40. Public Accounts Committee

  1. Is a Parliamentary Committee under the control of Parliament
  2. Its chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the members Lok Sabha
  3. Opposition member as its 1st Chairman was appointed on 26 Jan, 1950
  4. If a member after his election to the committee is appointed as minister, ceases to be its member

Now select the correct statements

  1. 1,2 & 4
  2. 2,3, & 4
  3. 2 & 3
  4. 2 & 4

Q.41.Article 341

  1. Empowers Parliament to include or exclude castes from the list of Scheduled Castes in the notification.
  2. Empowers the President to specify castes which will be deemed as Scheduled Castes through a notification
  3. Both a & b
  4. None of the above

Q.42. Article 163 stipulates that Governor can sometimes act at his discretion i.e. not necessarily on the advice of Council of Ministers. Consider the given powers of the Governor and select those that are considered his discretionary power:

  1. Selection of CM when no political party has a clear cut majority or does not have an acknowledged leader.
  2. All major appointments of the State are made by the Governor.
  3. Reservation of certain Bills for the consideration of the President

 

  1. All
  2. 1 & 2 only
  3. 1 & 3 only
  4. 2 & 3 only

Q.43. In case of differences between the two Houses of State Legislature

  1. There is provision for joint sitting of the two houses.
  2. There is no provision for joint sitting of the two houses.
  3. No state has two houses.
  4. Governor refers such bill for President’s consideration.

Q.44. Legislative Council can be abolished or created

  1. By simple majority resolution to be passed in the Legislative Assembly of that state.
  2. By a majority resolution of not being less than 2/3 of the members actually present & voting in the Legislative Assembly of that state.
  3. By an Act of Parliament.

Select the correct ones:

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. 1 & 3 taken together.
  4. 2 & 3 taken together.

Q.45.Governor’s power to grant assents or with hold assent or to reserve a bill for President is dealt under the heading

  1. “Governor” in Chapter II of Part VI
  2. “Legislative Procedure” in Chapter III of Part VI
  3. Both are correct
  4. None of the above is correct

Q.46. Which of the following are NOT the powers of PM with regard to the Council of Ministers?

  1. He recommend persons who can be appointed as ministers by the President
  2. He can co-ordinate the activities of all minister
  3. He can bring about the collapse of council of ministers
  4. He can ask the President to dismiss a minister
  1. All
  2. 1, 2 & 3
  3. 1, 3 & 4
  4. None of the above

Q.47. Which of the following Articles of Indian constitution or sections of various Acts are related to the power of States to remit sentences?

  1. Article72
  2. Article161
  3. Section 432 (1) of CrPC
  4. Section 433-A of CrPC
  1. All
  2. 1, 3 & 4
  3. 2 & 4
  4. 2, 3 & 4

Q.48. Consider the following Constitutional provisions

  1. Governor of State can act at his/her discretion while President can’t.
  2. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act has made ministerial advice as binding on the President & the Governor.
  3. Select the correct statement
  1. Both
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 2
  4. None of the above

Q.49. A registered political party is recognized as National party by Election Commission if

  1. The party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least 3 different states
  2. The party wins 6 % of votes in 4 states & wins 4 Lok Sabha seats
  3. The party gets recognized in 4 or more States as state party.

Now select the correct answers from the given choices

  1. Fulfillment of any one of the 3 criterion is required
  2. All the criterion should be fulfilled
  3. 1 & 2 criterion should be fulfilled
  4. None of the above is the prescribed criterion.

Q.50. Consider the following facts about Attorney General of India:

  1. He/ she can accept briefs against the Government
  2. He/ she cannot appear against the Government.
  3. He/ she can defend an accused in the criminal proceedings
  4. He/ she cannot accept the directorship of a company without the permission of the Government.

Choose the correct combination from the given code:

  1. 1, 2 & 3
  2. 1, 2 & 4
  3. 1, 2, 3 & 4
  4. 1, 3 & 4

Q.51. Which Article empowers Parliament to restrict Fundamental Right of members of Armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces & intelligence agencies?

  1. Article 33
  2. Article 34
  3. Article 35
  4. Article 35 A

Q.52. Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are correct?

  1. Residuary powers in normal conditions are kept under Concurrent list
  2. Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament
  3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is the Parliament
  4. The Government of India Act, 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of the Governor-General

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1, 2 & 3
  2. 2, 3 & 4
  3. 3 & 4
  4. 2 & 4

Q.53. Consider the following facts about death sentences in India.

  1. The execution of death sentence is carried out only through hanging by neck till death.
  2. India voted for a UN General Assembly Resolution for a moratorium on death penalty.

Correct statement/ statements include

  1. Both
  2. Only I
  3. Only II
  4. None of the above

 

54. The Endangerment of life and Liberty (Protection, prosecution and other measures) Act, 2011, has been approved by law Commission. This Act aims

  1. To ensure freedom of life and liberty
  2. To curb honour killing.
  3. To curb human trafficking.
  4. None of the above.

Q.55. NRI’s can now cast their vote in their home constituencies; however, they have to fulfill certain conditions. Such conditions is/are

  1. They have to register as voter
  2. They have to be physically present with their passport on the polling day
  3. Either a or b
  4. Both a and b.

Q.56. Consider the following statements:

  1. No criminal proceeding can be initiated against President & Governor during their term of office.
  1. No civil claim for relief can be initiated against President & Governor

These special privileges are exception to which of the Fundamental Rights?

  1. Article 12
  1. Article 14
  1. Article 15
  1. Article 16

Q.57. Consider the following facts about the impeachment of judges in India:

  1. Lok Sabha has over ridding authority over Rajya Sabha in the matter of impeachment of judges.
  2. Impeachment motion must be passed by 2/3rd majority in both houses in the same session.
  3. Select the correct facts:
  1. Both
  2. Only I
  3. Only II
  4. None of the above.

Q.58. In the Presidential election of India

  1. Value of Vote of an MP = Value of votes of a MLA.
  2. Total value of vote of all MPs = Total value of votes of all MLA s of all states
  3. Total value of vote of all MPs = Total value of votes of all MLA s of all states & UTs of Delhi & Pudduchrry.
  4. Total value of vote of all elected MPs = Total value of votes of all elected MLA s of all states & UTs of Delhi & Pudduchrry.

 Now, select the correct answer according to the given direction:

  1. 1 is incorrect but 2, 3 & 4 may be correct in all conditions.
  2. 1 is incorrect but 2, 3 & 4 may be correct in certain conditions.
  3. 1 & 2 are incorrect but 3 & 4 may be correct in all conditions.
  4. 1, 2 & 3 are incorrect but 4 is correct.

Q.59. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, an offence is treated as “aggravated” if it is committed by

  1. Security Forces
  2. Police Officers
  3. Public servants

 

  1. All
  2. Only 3
  3. 1 & 2
  4. 2 & 3

Q.60. Lok Sabha has a normal term of 5 years. However,

  1. Its term can be extended by an executive order during the period of National Emergency.
  2. Its term can be extended by an Act passed by Parliament during the period of National Emergency.
  3. Its term can be extended by an Act of Parliament by special majority.
  4. Its term can never be extended.

Q.61. Ordinance can be promulgated on matters mentioned in

  1. Union List
  2. State List if particular State is under President’s Rule
  3. Concurrent List
  4. Residuary power

Now, select the correct choices:

  1. All
  2. 1, 2 & 3
  3. 1, 3 & 4
  4. 1 & 3 only

Q.62. Amended Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, provides that records of all transactions, the nature and value of which is prescribed in the Rules, are to be maintained by

  1. Financial Institutions
  2. Banks
  3. Financial Intermediaries

Choose the correct one/ ones:

  1. All
  2. Only II
  3. Only I & II
  4. Only II & III

63. Who decides if a judge of Supreme Court should be impeached or not?

  1. President
  2. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  3. A committee comprising 2 judges and a jurist.
  4. A committee comprising 10 members of Lok Sabha & 5 members from Rajya Sabha.


Q.64. President’s power of respite or remit punishment differs in

  1. Remission refers to reduction of period of sentence without changing its character while Respite refers to awarding lesser sentence due to some special limitations such as physical disability or pregnancy.
  2. Remission refers to awarding lesser sentence due to some special limitations such as physical disability or pregnancy while Respite refers to reduction of period of sentence without changing its character.

Correct differences are:

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Either a or b can be true
  4. Neither a nor b is true

65. Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Bill, 2011

  1. Provides for confiscation of property held in benami but with compensation.
  2. Seeks to prohibit all benami transactions, with no exceptions.

Correct statements include:

  1. Both
  2. Only I
  3. Only II
  4. None of the above.

Q.66. Consider the following events:

  1. B.R. Ambedkar resigned from the Council of Minister on the issue of Hindu Code Bill.
  2. Arif Md. Khan resigned from the Council of Minister on the issue of Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986.

Now, select the possible causes of their resignation:

  1. Ambedkar resigned because he had differences with the then PM while Arif Md. Khan resigned on the ground of collective responsibility to Lok Sabha.
  2. Ambedkar resigned on the ground of collective responsibility to Lok Sabha while Arif Md. Khan resigned because he had differences with the then PM.
  3. Both resigned on the ground of collective responsibility to Lok Sabha.
  4. Both resigned as they had differences with the then PMs.

Q.67. Governor’s pardoning power differs from that of President in the following respects:

  1. President can pardons sentences inflicted by Court Martial while Governor cannot.
  2. President can pardon suspend, remit or commute a death sentence while Governor cannot.
  3. President can pardon death sentence while Governor can’t.

Select the correct differences:

  1. All
  2. Only 1
  3. 1 & 2 only
  4. 1 & 3 only

Q.68. In India, Vice President acts as ex-office Chairman of Upper House. Such similarity is found in:

  1. UK
  2. USA
  3. Japan
  4. Australia

Q.69. Consider the following facts about a Minister:

  1. At the time of his appointment he may not be the member of any house.
  2. He can take part in the house; of which he is not the member.
  3. He can vote in the house; of which he is not the member.

Select the incorrect facts:

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 3
  3. 1 & 3
  4. None of the above

Q.70. Consider the following facts about a Minister:

  1. At the time of his appointment he may not be the member of any house.
  2. He can take part in the house; of which he is not the member.
  3. He can vote in the house; of which he is not the member.

Select the incorrect facts:

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 3
  3. 1 & 3
  4. None of the above

Q.71. How many states have their High Courts outside their Capital?

  1. 9
  2. 8
  3. 7
  4. 6

Q.72. Which of the following Acts abolished bigamy in India?

  1. Special Marriage Act, 1954
  2. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  3. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
  4. Domestic Violence Act, 2002

Q.73.Which Committee is generally referred to as Super Cabinet?

  1. Public Accounts Committee
  2. Political Affairs Committee
  3. Economic Affairs Committee
  4. None of the above

Q.74. According to Article 80 of our Constitution:

  1. Rajya Sabha consists of not more than 238 representatives of States & UT.
  2. Lok Sabha consists of not more than 530 representatives of States.

Correct facts include:

  1. Both
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 2
  4. None of the above

Q.75. Which of the following authority & committee are provided for in our Constitution?

  1. Attorney General
  2. Cabinet Committee.
  3. Comptroller and Auditor General

 

  1. All
  2. 1 & 3
  3. 2 & 3
  4. Only 3

Q.76. Supreme Court struck down Section 118 of the Indian Succession Act on the ground that it is in direct violation of Article 14, 15, 25 and 26 of the Constitution. Section 118 restricts the succession right of which community?

  1. Christians
  2. Muslims
  3. Sikhs
  4. Jains

Q.77. A judge of Supreme Court and High Court can resign

  1. By writing in a particular typed format addressed to the President.
  2. By writing under his hand addressed to the President.
  3. Either a or b can be true.
  4. Neither a nor b is correct.

Q.78.If a state Legislature returns a bill to Governor, with or without amendment after reconsideration, then Governor

  1. Shall not with hold assent
  2. May reserve the bill for President’s consideration
  1. Either 1 or 2
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 2
  4. Both 1 & 2

Q.79. Consider the following statements:

  1. Central Bureau of Investigation functions under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension,and is headed by Amar Pratap Singh.
  2. National Investigation Agency functions under Ministry of Home Affairs, and is headed by Sharad Chandra Sinha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor ii

Q.80. Consider the following qualifications regarding the members of Parliament:

  1. In case of RS, he must be registered as an elector for a Parliamentary Constituency in the concerned State & UT.
  2. In case of LS, he must be registered as an elector for some Parliamentary constituency.

Select the incorrect facts:

  1. Both
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 2
  4. None of the above

Q.81. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court does not include disputes between

  1. Government of India & one or more states.
  2. Government of India & any state or states on one side & one or more states on the other.
  3. Two or more states

 

  1. All
  2. Only 1
  3. 1 & 2 only
  4. None of the above

Q.82. The minimum age fixed for appointed as a judge of Supreme Court is

  1. 30 years
  2. 35 years
  3. No minimum age is fixed
  4. 50 years.

Q.83. Union Executive of India consists of

  1. President of India
  2. Vice-President of India
  3. Council of Ministers
  4. Attorney – General of India

 

  1. 1 & 3 only
  2. 1, 3 & 4
  3. 1 2 & 3
  4. All of the above

 

84. CAG can be removed

  1. Only on the ground of proved misbehavior & incapacity
  2. Only on the recommendation of the two Houses of Parliament.
  3. Both taken together are necessary for CAG’s removal.
  4. Can be removed on the recommendation of Supreme Court.

Q.85. The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha need not be consulted while appointing which of the following authorities?

  1. Central Vigilance Commissioner
  2. Chief Executive Officer, Prashar Bharati
  3. Chief Information Commissioner
  4. Chairman of Public Accounts Committee

Q.86. Speaker’s seat becomes vacant under the following circumstances:

  1. Speaker resigns by writing to Deputy Speaker
  2. He/ she ceases to be a member of Lok Sabha.
  3. If Lok Sabha is dissolved

Correct causes of vacancy include:

  1. All
  2. 1 & 2 only
  3. 1 & 3 only
  4. Only 3

Q.87. Ordinance can be promulgated on matters mentioned in

  1. Union List
  2. State List if particular State is under President’s Rule
  3. Concurrent List
  4. Residuary power

Now, select the correct choices:

  1. All
  2. 1, 2 & 3
  3. 1, 3 & 4
  4. 1 & 3 only

Q.88. If a person is elected to both Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve. If he fails to intimate in time,

  1. His Rajya Sabha seat becomes vacant
  2. His Lok Sabha seat becomes vacant
  3. his both seats becomes vacant
  4. Seats to be vacated is decided by Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Q.89. In criminal cases, appeal can be made in the Supreme Court if High Court certifies that the case is fit for appeal. However, an appeal can be made even if no certification is provided by High Court if

  1. If High Court has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of the accused & sentence him to death.
  2. Where the High Court has withdrawn a case from the lower court; conducted the trial itself & awarded the accused death sentence or more than 10 years imprisonment.
  3. Both a & b are fit for appeal.
  4. No appeal can be made if High Court does not certify that the case is fit for appeal

Q.90. Starred Question differs from Un-starred questions in

  1. Starred Question requires oral answer while Un-starred question requires written answer.
  2. In case of Starred Question supplementary questions can follow while in case of Un-starred question supplementary questions can’t follow.
  3. Both a & b are correct differences.
  4. None of the above is correct difference.

Q.91. All Single members Constituency for the Lok Sabha started from

  1. 1st General Election
  2. 2nd General Election
  3. 3rd General Election
  4. 5th General Election

Q.92. Supreme Court enjoys the power of judicial review under Article 32. However, it cannot review

  1. Validity & Conduct of proceeding in Parliament.
  2. Delimitation of Constituencies
  3. Both a & b
  4. None of the above.

Q.93. Which of the following is neither Appellate nor Advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court?

  1. It can decide disputes regarding the election of President & Vice President.
  2. It can hear cases involving interpretation of Constitution.
  3. It can recommend to the President for the removal of Chairman and members of UPSC

 

  1. All
  2. Only 1 & 3
  3. Only 1 & 2
  4. Only 2

Q.94.Which Committee is generally referred to as Super Cabinet?

  1. Public Accounts Committee
  2. Political Affairs Committee
  3. Economic Affairs Committee
  4. None of the above

Q.95. A nominated member is disqualified under Anti-Defection Act on the ground that

  1. He joins any political party immediately after nomination.
  2. He joins any political party after the expiry of 6 months.
  3. He joins any political party at any of his tenure.
  4. He is not disqualified if he joins any political party.

Q.96. UTs are directly administered by President (Art-39) through an administrator, named variously. Lieutenant Governor is the name used for the administrators of

  1. Lakshadweep
  2. Andaman and Nicobar
  3. Puducherry
  4. Delhi

 

  1. All
  2. 3 and 4
  3. 2,3 and 4
  4. 1,3 and 4

Q.97. Article 163 of our Constitution stipulates that Governor can sometimes act at his discretion. Such discretion does not include:

  1. Reservation of certain Bills for the consideration of the President.
  2. Submission of report to the President regarding failure of the Constitutional machinery in the State.
  3. Selection of Chief Minister when no political party has a clear cut majority or does not have an acknowledged leader.

 

  1. All
  2. 1 & 2
  3. 2 & 3
  4. None of the above

98. A change in the name of States of India requires:

  1. Approval of Union Cabinet
  2. Approval of Parliament
  3. Presidential reference to the State Legislature for its views.
  1. All
  2. Only I & II
  3. Only II & III
  4. Only III

Q.99. According to Benami Transaction (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016, a property is not benami, if

  1. It is in the name of spouse or children, purchased from Known sources of income
  2. It is a joint property of brothers or sisters and purchased from known sources of income.
  3. Both a & b
  4. None of the above

Q.100. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment 2016

  1. Prohibits employment of Children below 14 in all occupation
  2. Prohibits employment of children below 14 in Hazardous occupation
  3. Prohibitions employment of children between 14 to 18 in Hazardous occupation
  4. Prohibits employment of children between 14 to 18 in all occupation

Now select the correct facts

  1. Only 1
  2. 2 & 4
  3. 1 & 3
  4. 1,3 & 4
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